I realize this is a very old question with an accepted answer, but none of these answers actually use the approach suggested by the hint.
It is a pretty simple argument:
n!
(= 1*2*3*...*n) is a product of n
numbers each less than or equal to n
. Therefore it is less than the product of n
numbers all equal to n
; i.e., n^n
.
Half of the numbers -- i.e. n/2
of them -- in the n!
product are greater than or equal to n/2
. Therefore their product is greater than the product of n/2
numbers all equal to n/2
; i.e. (n/2)^(n/2)
.
Take logs throughout to establish the result.