[algorithm] Is log(n!) = T(n·log(n))?

I realize this is a very old question with an accepted answer, but none of these answers actually use the approach suggested by the hint.

It is a pretty simple argument:

n! (= 1*2*3*...*n) is a product of n numbers each less than or equal to n. Therefore it is less than the product of n numbers all equal to n; i.e., n^n.

Half of the numbers -- i.e. n/2 of them -- in the n! product are greater than or equal to n/2. Therefore their product is greater than the product of n/2 numbers all equal to n/2; i.e. (n/2)^(n/2).

Take logs throughout to establish the result.

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